LOTTERY WINNER IN UK ORDERED TO PAY EX WIFE A SHARE OF WINNINGS
I am not going to pretend to understand why this happened. But I was reading a case over the pond about a man who won the lottery and he was forced to pay his ex wife $2 million in settlement, even though they were divorced TEN YEARS at the time he won. I find it incomprehensible that any court anywhere would determine that this ex wife was entitled to anything from this loot, and I would be curious about the legal theories they used to come to such an astounding decision. How is this marital property if you have been divorced a decade? If that is the case, then anyone is responsible for a former spouse into perpetuity?! That is bizarre. But I should point out the case never reached the courts. The man settled with her and her lawyers rather than take the case to trial for fear he’d be ordered to pay even more. But I am still confused why his solicitors advised him to give her jack. She wasn’t entitled to a penny as far as I’m concerned. Here’s an excerpt of the story from a British website:
£56m lottery winner has been ordered to pay £2m to his ex-wife who walked out on him ten years ago.
Nigel Page, 44, was sued by his former wife Wendy shortly after his massive Euromillions windfall earlier this year even though she left him for another man.
The human resources director, 43, who is the mother of his 13-year-old daughter, is thought to have wanted £8m.
She received a lump sum of £2m in an out-of-court settlement, which she celebrated yesterday when she was spotted with a bottle of Champagne as she left her luxury Gloucestershire home with a mystery man.
Mr Page is believed to be the first lottery winner to be successfully sued by an ex-partner for a percentage of their winnings.
What do you think about this? Is it me? Or is this ridiculous?